Subject: Re: hi
Date: Jan 26, 2003 @ 21:59
Author: acroorca2002 <orc@orcoast.com> ("acroorca2002 <orc@...>" <orc@...>)
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--- In BoundaryPoint@yahoogroups.com, Kevin Meynell
<kevin@m...> wrote:
>
> >What exactly constitutes "innocent passage"? If the US wants
to sail a
> >half a mile off Iran, that would not be innocent passage,
would it
>
> Don't nations still retain the 3 nautical mile limit as 'coastal
waters' as
> opposed to the 12 nautical mile 'territorial waters', in which they
may bar
> entry to foreign vessels?

a few countries like oz still do distinguish as coastal waters the
most landward 3nm of their 12nm belt of territorial seas

& oz even distributes these most landward territorial seas to its
coastal states
much as the usa does

& as canada does not
tho her atlantic provinces claim them

etc etc
in endless local variety


but in the eyes of international law
these or any other internal distinctions or restrictions dont protect
such coastal waters
whether by that or any other name
from innocent passage


since 1994 innocent passage extends everywhere all the way
inshore to the coastal baselines

the baselines are what limit the passage

& they of course run at a variable distance from the coast



so legally you can just about kiss the most obtrusive capes

& you cant even penetrate certain huge bays at all

but the 3nm distance doesnt have anything to do with it